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PRMIA Exam 8010 Topic 4 Question 55 Discussion

Actual exam question for PRMIA's 8010 exam
Question #: 55
Topic #: 4
[All 8010 Questions]

Under the KMV Moody's approach to credit risk measurement, which of the following expressions describes the expected 'default point' value of assets at which the firm may be expected to default?

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Suggested Answer: D

Recovery rates vary a great deal from year to year, and are difficult to predict. Therefore statement III is true. Similarly, any attempt to predict these is hamstrung by a high standard error, which can be as high as the historical mean itself. The error does not cancel itself out due to the effect of the business cycle making the error directionally biased. Thus statement IV is false.

Statement II is true as these are all factors that make forecasting recovery rates for any credit risk model rather difficult. Statement I is false because recovery rates are difficult to predict and assumptions are not easy to make.


Contribute your Thoughts:

Sue
1 hours ago
I think the correct answer is C. It makes sense that the default point would be a weighted combination of short-term and long-term debt.
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Ryan
10 days ago
But the expected 'default point' value is calculated based on the KMV Moody's approach, so it should be C) Short term debt + 0.5* Long term debt.
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Bronwyn
11 days ago
I disagree, I believe the answer is D) Long term debt + 0.5* Short term debt.
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Ryan
12 days ago
I think the answer is C) Short term debt + 0.5* Long term debt.
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