Deal of The Day! Hurry Up, Grab the Special Discount - Save 25% - Ends In 00:00:00 Coupon code: SAVE25
Welcome to Pass4Success

- Free Preparation Discussions

PRMIA Exam 8010 Topic 2 Question 63 Discussion

Actual exam question for PRMIA's 8010 exam
Question #: 63
Topic #: 2
[All 8010 Questions]

If the odds of default are 1:5, what is the probability of default?

Show Suggested Answer Hide Answer
Suggested Answer: C

Concentration risk in a credit portfolio arises due to a high degree of correlation between the default probabilities of the issuers of securities in the portfolio. For example, the fortunes of the issuers in the same industry may be highly correlated, and an investor exposed to multiple such borrowers may face 'concentration risk'.

A low degree of correlation, or independence of individual defaults in the portfolio actually reduces or even eliminates concentration risk.

The fact that issuers are from the same country may not necessarily give rise to concentration risk - for example, a bank with all US based borrowers in different industries or with different retail exposure types may not face practically any concentration risk. What really matters is the default correlations between the borrowers, for example a lender exposed to cement producers across the globe may face a high degree of concentration risk.


Contribute your Thoughts:

Stephaine
9 days ago
Wait, what? If the odds are 1:5, that means the probability of default is 50%. It's a 50/50 chance, right? This question is a trick!
upvoted 0 times
...
Patti
11 days ago
I'm pretty sure the probability is 20%. The odds of 1:5 means that for every 6 events, 1 of them is a default. So the probability of default is 1/6 or 20%.
upvoted 0 times
...
Goldie
14 days ago
Okay, let's think this through. If the odds of default are 1:5, that means the probability of default is the number of favorable outcomes (1) divided by the total number of possible outcomes (1 + 5 = 6). So the probability should be 1/6 or 16.67%.
upvoted 0 times
...
Nicholle
22 days ago
I'm not sure, but I think the answer is A) 16.67% as well. It makes sense based on the odds given.
upvoted 0 times
...
Kathryn
23 days ago
I agree with Margret, because the probability is calculated by dividing 1 by the sum of the odds plus 1.
upvoted 0 times
...
Margret
24 days ago
I think the answer is A) 16.67%
upvoted 0 times
...

Save Cancel
az-700  pass4success  az-104  200-301  200-201  cissp  350-401  350-201  350-501  350-601  350-801  350-901  az-720  az-305  pl-300  

Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent by (output started at /pass.php:70) in /pass.php on line 77