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PRMIA Exam 8010 Topic 1 Question 39 Discussion

Actual exam question for PRMIA's 8010 exam
Question #: 39
Topic #: 1
[All 8010 Questions]

The cumulative probability of default for a security for 4 years is 11.47%. The marginal probability of default for the security for year 5 is 5% during year 5. What is the cumulative probability of default for the security for 5 years?

Show Suggested Answer Hide Answer
Suggested Answer: B

Volatility clustering leads to levels of current volatility that can be significantly different from long run averages. When volatility is running high, institutions need to shed risk, and when it is running low, they can afford to increase returns by taking on more risk for a given amount of capital. An institution's response to changes in volatility can be either to adjust risk, or capital, or both. Accounting for volatility clustering helps institutions manage their risk and capital and therefore statements I and II are correct.

Regulatory requirements do not require volatility clustering to be taken into account (at least not yet). Therefore statement III is not correct, and neither is IV which is completely unrelated to volatility clustering.


Contribute your Thoughts:

Rochell
1 months ago
Alright, time to put my financial math skills to the test. Let's see if I can crack this nut and make it to the next round.
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Delsie
1 months ago
Haha, this question is a real head-scratcher. I bet the exam writer is just trying to trip us up. Time to put on my thinking cap and outsmart them!
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Lisha
5 days ago
C) 15.90%
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Eun
25 days ago
I think the answer is A) 16.47%
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Quentin
27 days ago
A) 16.47%
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Lonny
29 days ago
D) None of the above
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Therese
1 months ago
C) 15.90%
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Simona
1 months ago
A) 16.47%
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Miesha
2 months ago
Woah, hold up. This is tricky. I'm not sure if I should just add the probabilities or do some fancy math. Guess I'll have to think it through carefully.
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Tanesha
7 days ago
No problem! It's always good to double check when dealing with probabilities.
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Fernanda
22 days ago
Oh, I see now. Adding the probabilities makes sense. Thanks for the clarification!
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Desmond
1 months ago
So, the answer would be 11.47% + 5.00% = 16.47%
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Gennie
1 months ago
I think you need to add the cumulative probability for 4 years with the marginal probability for year 5.
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Felicitas
2 months ago
Hmm, this seems straightforward enough. Let me think this through step-by-step. Yep, I'm pretty sure the answer is A) 16.47%.
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Jeannetta
27 days ago
That makes sense, the cumulative probability increases by adding the marginal probability for year 5.
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Cortney
28 days ago
I agree, the answer is A) 16.47%.
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Ruthann
1 months ago
Yes, it's definitely A) 16.47%.
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Ty
1 months ago
I agree, the answer is A) 16.47%.
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Veda
2 months ago
I'm not sure, but I think the answer is C) 15.90% because we need to subtract the marginal probability from the cumulative probability for 4 years.
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Avery
2 months ago
I agree with Sheridan, because we need to add the marginal probability of default for year 5 to the cumulative probability for 4 years.
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Yoko
2 months ago
Wait, the cumulative probability is 11.47% for 4 years, and then the marginal probability for year 5 is 5%? Okay, I think I got this. Time to crunch the numbers!
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Lenny
24 days ago
A) 16.47%
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Cristen
1 months ago
C) 15.90%
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Terrilyn
1 months ago
A) 16.47%
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Sheridan
2 months ago
I think the answer is A) 16.47%
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Mohammad
2 months ago
I'm not sure, but it makes sense to me. So, I'll go with A) 16.47%
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Lavonne
2 months ago
I agree with Charlette, because we need to add the marginal probability of default for year 5 to the cumulative probability for 4 years.
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Charlette
2 months ago
I think the answer is A) 16.47%
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