FortiWeb is configured in reverse proxy mode and it is deployed downstream to FortiGate. Based on the configuration shown in the exhibits, which of the following statements is true?
Wait, so we're talking about web traffic, but the question mentions a server pool? I thought FortiWeb was for web application firewalling, not server load balancing. Guess I need to brush up on my Fortinet trivia.
Ah, the age-old debate of upstream vs. downstream. As long as the settings are correct, I think D is the way to go. Though I do wonder if the Fortinet engineers have been drinking too much coffee lately.
Hold on, are we sure FortiWeb should always be upstream? That's not necessarily true, it depends on the specific use case. I'll go with D, it makes the most sense to me.
Wait, FortiWeb is downstream to FortiGate? That's a bit unconventional, but as long as the configuration is set up properly, it should work. I'd go with D.
Hmm, the key here is that FortiWeb is in reverse proxy mode, so the traffic should be forwarded to the virtual server IP address on FortiWeb, not the server pool IPs. D is the correct answer.
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