A UK manufacturing company has simultaneously:
* purchased a put option to sell USD 1million at an exercise price of GBP1.00 = USD1.65
* sold a call option that grants the option holder the right to buy USD 1million at a price of GBP1.00 = USD1.61(this option has the same maturity date as the put).
Which of the following is a valid explanation for entering into these option positions?
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